Q & A

Q: Does Hebrews 9:28 contradict the theory that Christ has already returned twice in the clouds of heaven?

So Christ was once offered to bear the sins of many; and unto them that look for him shall he appear the second time without sin unto salvation. (Hebrews 9:28)

Heavens no! This verse means Christ would appear a second time bringing salvation but not bearing sin. He clearly brought salvation once when he died on the cross. The cloud comings were merely signs of when to watch for the end of the world and had nothing to do with salvation. At the end of the world Christ will appear the “second time” bringing salvation.

Q: Where is authority for the proposition that Christ would return multiple times?

Christ had to return at least twice because Christ told Caiaphas and those present at his trial that they would see him returning in the clouds of heaven. He also said he would return in the clouds in that generation (Matthew 24:34). Since he will also return when the world ends this suggests at least two appearances.

Another one is implied if we interpret a cloud-coming following the “times of the Gentiles.” In Revelation John describes two appearances of Christ in the clouds. The first is described in Revelation 1:7 which I contend was fulfilled in AD 66. A second is described in Revelation 14:14:

And I looked and behold a white cloud and upon the cloud one sat like unto the Son of man, having on his head a golden crown, and in his hand a sharp sickle.

In 14:16 John describes Christ reaping the earth. This description of Christ appearing in a cloud might have been his second and final appearance had the world ended in either AD 149 or AD 1149. This is why John describes it as a possible harvest of the earth-- when the world would end. However, since the world didn't end the appearance of Christ in Revelation 14:14 follows the expiration of the times of the Gentiles. The end of the world is still well into the future.

Q: Which of Jesus’ disciples do you believe witnessed Christ returning in the clouds in AD 66?

Only John lived to see it. In John 21 :22, after Jesus rose from the dead, he singled out John as the one who would witness his return:

Jesus saith unto him, If I will that he tarry till I come, what is that to thee? follow thou me.

Jesus was speaking to Peter in this verse but the "he" is in reference to John. I believe John described the day Jesus returned in Revelation (see Christ in the Clouds part 2).

Jesus' statement about John is particularly relevant when we consider that it was made in response to a question posed by Peter. Only a few verses earlier Jesus had predicted that Peter would be martyred and by this death Peter would glorify God (21:19). Peter then asked what would happen to John. Tradition indicates that Peter was martyred by Nero sometime around AD 66. Coindentally he died around the time Jesus might have returned in the clouds in Iyar, 66. This makes Jesus' statement about John much more relevant. Whereas Peter likely died just prior to Jesus' return, John actually lived to see it. This explains why Jesus mentioned his return in response to Peter's question.

Q: How do you read Luke's Olivet Discourse as describing two cloud comings of Christ-- one after the “times of the Gentiles” and one at its inception?

Luke 21:27 states that men will see Christ coming in a cloud. In Matthew 24 and Mark 13 Jesus also said he would send his angels to gather his elect-- a statement not found anywhere in Luke. However, I read Luke 21:20 ("when ye shall see Jerusalem compassed with armies") to mean armies of heaven or angels gathering Christ's elect. At that time Christ did appear in the clouds in AD 66. So Luke 21:27 was fulfilled at that time. However, 21:27 could also have another fulfillment after the times of the gentiles expired in 2006. This is the basic theory.

Q: Do the 42 months of Revelation 11:2 encompass the “times of the Gentiles?”

Revelation 11:2 reads:

But the court which is without the temple leave out, and measure it not; for it is given unto the Gentiles: and the holy city shall they tread under foot forty and two months.

The times of the Gentiles are not mentioned in this verse. The 42 months noted in the verse do not in any way contradict the theory that the times of the Gentiles noted in Luke envisioned 2,000 years. The passage discusses the treading under foot of Jerusalem by the Gentiles. The 42 months correspond to the roughly 3.5-year periods noted throughout Revelation 11-13. I believe the author was describing circumstances he felt would exist during the 3.5 years preceding the end of the world. The presence of Gentiles in Jerusalem is but one of them. The "treading under foot" by the Gentiles simply means the presence of Gentiles in Jerusalem, which has been true for over 2,000 years. History reveals that Jerusalem has been tread under foot by Gentiles for far longer than 3.5 years.

Some claim these 42 months are the exact same interval as the 1,260 days noted in Revelation 11:3 with 30 days per month. This is incorrect because the Jewish month alternates between 29 and 30 days. The 1,260 days more likely are an interval beginning with Nisan 10 (i.e., Palm Sunday--or the day when the Passover lamb is selected per Exodus 12:3). In most cases the interval between Nisan 10 and Rosh Hashanah (Tishri 1) three years later is precisely 1,260 days in the present Jewish calendar.

Q: Can we be sure Jesus was crucified in AD 30?

The evidence clearly favors this date. Luke 3:1 and 3:20 indicate that John the Baptist was imprisoned in the 15^th year of Tiberius Caesar. This was in AD 28/29. John only mentions two Passover feasts after John was imprisoned (John 3:24; 6:4; 12:1). These two Passover feasts likely correspond to the feasts in AD 29 and AD 30, respectively. The last Passover was when Jesus was crucified.